re Charles Stanley's "being free' in Christ ...which definition of freedom, Christ's or man's?

I heard today a message by Charles Stanley in which he claimed that Christ sets us free, that one is free through Christ.

Can he define this freedom when he refers to it, since being free is defined by man as a state of not being subject to an authority, i..e Freedom of Rights, Free will?

A true state of freedom can only be given by an authority which has the inherent power to do so. Since it can only be given, it clearly implies one is subject to that authority and is limited by one's obedience to that authority to do that which has been permitted.

Any other unapproved self-claimed freedom is, therefore, a taken freedom ...a disobedience in the eyes of the authority. The one claiming it may believe himself to be free but in reality he is not, for he is still subject to his master and a future judgement-punishment.

Is Charles speaking of the freedom that man claims to be good, i.e. Freedom of rights, Freedom of Religion, Free will, Freedom of choice, etc., OR is he speaking of being free with the boundary of obedience to Christ and His Will....therefore not the state of 'being free' according to man's definition?